I've read and reread the prioress tale looking for some shading of complexity that would lead me to believe that this was anything other than anti-semitism and I don't see it. The Rubin retelling of the story merely shows Chaucer's reinterpretation of the voices, but it fails to show that the tale is not itself anti-semitic. I would even point to the angelic description of the prioress in the prologue as a sign that the words she speaks in her tale are meant to be taken at face value.
I could go on recapitulating, but I don't want to be redundant, this is anti-semitic.
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